Sorry to drag the Monte Hall problem again, but I'm still
not clear about it.
I can understand why some people may think the last door has
1/3 chance. However I still disagree, beleiving there is
only 1/2 chance, as do most of my non-psychology friends.
Therefore, as I can understand why other people think it's
1/3 BUT I cannot understand why that is the solution in my
own mind. Does this mean the Monte Hall problem is
cognitively penetrable to them, but cognitively impenetrable
Can anyone sort this out for me to get it out of my head?
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